Federalism: NBSE Class 11 (Arts) Political Science answers, notes

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Here, you will find summaries, questions, answers, textbook solutions, pdf, extras etc. of (Nagaland Board) NBSE Class 11 Political Science Chapter 16: Federalism. These solutions, however, should be only treated as references and can be modified/changed.

Introduction

India’s federal constitution is a complex and dynamic system that balances power between the central government and the states. The constitution, originally consisting of 395 articles and eight schedules, has evolved over time to include 22 parts and 12 schedules. It is neither entirely flexible nor rigid, with different parts requiring varying levels of majority for amendments.

The Supreme Court and High Courts serve as the final interpreters of the constitution, ensuring that actions of the Union or State governments align with constitutional provisions. The constitution divides legislative powers among the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List covers subjects like defense and foreign affairs, while the State List includes items of local interest such as public health and agriculture. The Concurrent List contains items like criminal law and education, where both Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to make laws.

Despite being a federation, India’s constitution exhibits a pronounced unitary bias, leading some observers to label it a “quasi-federation”. The Parliament has extensive legislative powers, even over State subjects, if deemed necessary in the national interest.

However, the relationship between the Centre and the States is not without its tensions. Issues such as financial relations, the role of Governors, the imposition of President’s Rule, and demands for new states have often led to conflicts. For instance, the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 has been a contentious issue.

The formation of new states based on linguistic and cultural lines has also been a source of tension. The creation of Andhra Pradesh led to similar demands from other regions, resulting in the formation of states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, and more recently, Telangana.

Textual questions and answers

A. Long answer questions

1. Explain the features of a Federal Government with reference to the following:

(a) Division of Powers between the National Government and State Governments

Answer: The first important feature is the division of state powers between a federal (national) government and governments of federating units (state governments). The subjects of national importance, such as defence, foreign affairs, currency and coinage, are placed under the control of the national government, while those that are of local or regional importance, such as police, land or public order, are placed under the control of the governments of federating units.

(b) Two Sets of Identities

Answer: A Federation combines the advantage of ‘national unity’ with those of local identity’, i.e. the right of self-government. In a Federation sovereignty is located neither in the Central government, nor in the governments of constituent States. All these have limited powers. Division of powers in a federation is the division of governmental authority and not of sovereignty. In fact, sovereignty resides in the Federation or the Union itself.

(c) A Written Constitution

Answer: Another feature of a federal government is that it has a written, rigid and supreme Constitution. According to Dicey, the Constitution of a Federation has to be a written one. Constitution is in the nature of an agreement, which not only enacts distribution of powers, but also lays down the conditions and processes through which these powers have to be exercised. It is also a Rigid Constitution because no amendment can be affected unless both the National and State governments consent to the change through a well defined procedure. It is the Constitution which is supreme. The central and state legislatures exercise their powers within the limits set by the Constitution.

(d) An Independent Judiciary to decide Inter-State Disputes

Answer: Since a federal government is based on the principle of division of powers, conflicts of jurisdiction are bound to arise between the National government and State governments. Therefore, in every federation there is some institution that has the power to decide disputes between the Central Government and any State or between two States. In most federations such powers are vested in an independent Supreme Court, which acts as the Guardian of the Constitution. 

2. Discuss the Federal features of the Constitution of India.

Answer: The federal features of the Constitution of India are as follows:

Two Sets of Government: A Federal Constitution is marked by the coexistence of two governments, with limited and co-ordinate authority. Article 1 of the Constitution declares that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ implied that the component units had no right to secede from the Indian Union. Today India consist of 29 States and 7 Union Territories.

Division of Powers: All subjects of legislation and administration have been classified into three lists-the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List. Whereas subjects of national importance, such as defence, atomic energy, railways and currency have been placed under the Union List, subjects of local importance like police, agriculture and local government form a part of the State List. The Concurrent List contains matters (marriage, education, etc.) on which both the Parliament and the State Legislature have power to make laws. If some dispute arises between the Union and the States or for that matter between the States themselves, it has to be settled by the Supreme Court.

Written and Rigid Constitution: Another characteristic of a federal constitution is that it is written as well as rigid. Our Constitution originally consisted of 395 Articles and eight Schedules. It has now 395 Articles arranged in twenty two Parts and 12 Schedules. The Indian Constitution is neither very flexible nor very rigid. Certain parts of the Constitution can be amended by simple majority in Parliament, others by a two-thirds majority. Amendments to a third category of provisions have to be approved by at least one-half of the States, after having been passed by the Parliament.

The Supreme Court acts as Final Interpreter of the Constitution: In every federation there is some institution with powers to decide disputes arising out of conflicts of jurisdiction. The Supreme Court and the High Courts in India have power to interpret the Constitution. They can nullify any action of the Union or State governments in case it violates the provisions of the Constitution.

3. Examine those provisions of the Indian Constitution that make the Central Government very powerful. (Or) “The Indian Constitution is Federal in form, but Unitary in spirit.” Comment.

Answer: The provisions of the Indian Constitution that make the Central Government very powerful are as follows:

Parliament has very Wide Scope of Legislation: India’s Parliament has power of legislation over State subjects also. This is possible if the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution (supported by two-thirds of the Members present and voting) that it is necessary in national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List.

Parliament can alter the Boundaries of States in order to form a New State: The Parliament can increase or diminish the area of any State. It can also alter the boundaries or change the names of the States.

Overwhelming Financial Powers of the Union: The Union Government has also the freedom and authority to decide how much Grant or Loan has to be given to a State in a particular situation.

Role of the Governor: The executive head of the State is the Governor, who is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor is required to reserve certain specified bills for the Assent of the President.

In an Emergency the Federal Structure may be converted into a Unitary One: Once the President issues a Proclamation of Emergency, the Union Parliament can legislate on any subject enumerated in the State List.

President’s Rule: In case of break-down of the Constitutional machinery of a State, the President may assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State.

Centre’s Control Over All-India Services: Even during normal circumstances the Union Government may assert much control over State Administration by means of All-India Services i.e. IAS and IPS officers.

4. Discuss the causes of tension and conflict in Centre-State relations with reference to the following:

(a) Demands for Autonomy 

Answer: Demand for Autonomy means that the States should be free to make their own decisions, rather than being politically and financially controlled by the Union Government. The Tamil Nadu Government appointed a Committee (Rajamannar Committee) to look into the question of Centre-State relations. It recommended that major alterations should be made in Constitution’s Seventh Schedule that comprises the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List. Its another major recommendation was that Article 356 (that provides for President’s Rule in States) should be examined in order to decide what changes are needed in it. 

(b) Financial Relations 

Answer: The Union Government “is financially stabler and stronger than the State governments.” So long as the States do not get their due share of the ‘fiscal cake’, there will be tensions in Centre-State relations. The Chief Ministers are of the view that while the responsibilities of the States have been increasing, their resources remained stagnant. States were required to follow the policies laid down earlier by the Planning Commission and now-a-days by the Niti Ayog. They cannot do so without obtaining sufficient funds from the Union.

(c) Office of the Governor

Answer: The Constitution-makers wanted the Governor to become a coordinating factor between the States and the Centre. Gradually, however, the clashes between the Chief Minister and the Governor became quite common. On February 21, 1998, the Governor of Uttar Pradesh dismissed Kalyan Singh Government on the eve of the Lok Sabha elections. The Allahabad High Court nullified the Governor’s decision. The Goa Governor had dismissed the BJP government early in 2005, despite a Confidence Vote in Chief Minister’s favour. It is but natural that a partisan Governor would be unacceptable to most Chief Ministers. The Governor should be an eminent personality, not connected with the local politics of the State.

5. Examine the main causes of conflict and tension in Centre-State relations on account of the following factors:

(a) Provision of President’s Rule in States

Answer: Kerala was the first victim of an improper use of Article 356 which empowers the Centre to dismiss a State government. Since then this power has been used about a 100 times, though the Founding Fathers of the Constitution hoped that it would only remain a “dead letter”. On 7 October 2005 the Supreme Court held the May 23 Presidential Proclamation dissolving the Bihar State Assembly as “unconstitutional”. Thus, Article 356 was “conditional and not absolute.” It was open for the Supreme Court or the High Courts to know the facts on the basis of which Presidential Proclamation was based. 

(b) Demands for New States

Answer: The demand for new States has also been a cause of tension between Centre-State relations. Soon after the First General Election in 1952 the Andhra Pradesh Congress Committee passed a resolution asking for a separate State for the Telugu speaking people of Madras (Tamil Nadu). The Union Government did not concede the demand in the first instance but after Sriramulu’s death, who had gone on fast for the fulfilment of his objective, the State of Andhra Pradesh came into existence on 1 October 1953. The creation of a separate State of Andhra Pradesh led to similar demands from other quarters. In 1960 the State of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat. In 1963 Nagaland formally became a State of the Indian Union and in 1972 many separate States, such as Manipur and Meghalaya, were carved out of the large State of Assam.

B. Short answer questions

6. Mention any five recommendations that were made by the Sarkaria Commission to strengthen federal ties for better cooperation between the Union and States?

Answer: The Sarkaria Commission made the following five recommendations to strengthen federal ties for better cooperation between the Union and States:

• The Governor should be an eminent person and should not be too intimately connected with the local politics of States.
• The Chief Minister should be consulted before appointing a particular person as Governor of that State.
• Power to impose President’s rule in a State should be used very sparingly.
• Before deploying paramilitary forces into disturbed regions in a State, the concerned Chief Minister should be consulted.
• According to Article 258, the President may entrust such powers and functions to State Governments that belong to the Union Government. The President should generously give States more powers and responsibilities.

7. What are the Special Provisions for the State of Jammu and Kashmir in Indian Constitution?

Answer: [Note: the answer is outdated now because of recent changes in Jammu and Kashmir] The Constitution of India contains some Special Provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir:

• Jammu and Kashmir is the only State in the country having a Constitution of its own and a separate Flag.
• When the President of India proclaims Emergency under Article 352 due to external aggression or armed rebellion, it automatically becomes applicable to the whole of India, except Jammu and Kashmir. It shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir without the concurrence of the State.
• The President cannot proclaim a Financial Emergency in the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The Power of Parliament to make laws for Jammu and Kashmir shall be limited to those matters which have been specified in the Instrument of Accession. The Parliament may make laws on other matters also, but that can be done only with the concurrence of the State government.
• The Union Parliament cannot repeal Article 370 without the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly.

8. What are the Special Provisions for the Bodos in Assam and hill tribes in Darjeeling and the neighbouring regions?

Answer: The Special Provisions for the Bodos in Assam and hill tribes in Darjeeling and the neighbouring regions are:

Bodoland Territorial Council: The Bodos in Assam had been agitating for the establishment of a separate Bodo State. Both the Union Government and the Assam Government rejected the demand for a separate Bodo State. On 10th February 2003, the Union Government, the Assam Government and the Bodo Liberation Tigers signed a Memorandum of Settlement. They reached a joint decision on the creation of a Bodoland Territorial Council, which is expected to fulfil economic, educational and linguistic aspirations of the Bodos. In 2003 the Bodo language was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

District Councils for Dimasas and Karbis: Autonomy demands of Dimasas and Karbis were satisfied by the formation of the District Councils to look after the social and economic well-being of these communities.

Gorkhaland Territorial Administration: The Gorkha National Liberation Front had waged a fierce agitation under Subhas Ghising’s leadership with the aim of having a separate State out of the Darjeeling and neighbouring regions of West Bengal. In 1988 the GNLF, accepted government’s proposal to form a Hill Development Council with the condition that the proposed Council should include the word ‘Gorkha’ in its nomenclature. In 2007 the demand for Gorkhaland as a separate State was voiced again. This came under the direction of Gorkha Janmukti Morcha (GJM). In 2011 the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council was replaced by Gokhaland Territorial Administration (GTA) which was vested with a few significant powers towards developing Hill areas.

9. What are the Special Provisions with respect to the State of Nagaland?

Answer: Special Provisions with respect to the State of Nagaland Section are:

Section (a) of this Article provides that no Act of Parliament in respect of:

(i) religious or social practices of the Nagas
(ii) Naga customary law and procedure
(iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law
(iv) ownership and transfer of land and its resources, shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides.

Section (b) of the Article provides that the Governor shall have special responsibility with respect to law and order so long as internal disturbances in the Naga Hills Tuensang Area continue. The Governor shall, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercise his individual Judgement as to the action to be taken.

C. Very short answer questions

10. Mention any two subjects included in each of the following Lists:

(a) Union List 

Answer: The Union List includes subjects such as defence of India, atomic energy.

(b) State List 

Answer: The State List consists of items which are mainly of local interest such as public order, police.

(c) Concurrent List

Answer: The Concurrent List consists of items such as criminal law, marriage and divorce.

11. Should common language, namely Hindi, be the sole basis for formation of a State? Give reasons for your answer.

Answer: A common language, such as Hindi, should not be the sole basis for the formation of a State because of the following reasons:

Diversity: India is a country known for its diversity. There are numerous languages spoken across different regions. Making a single language the sole basis for state formation could undermine this rich linguistic diversity.

Representation: Each state in India has its unique cultural, historical, and socio-economic context, which is often closely tied to its regional language. Forming a state solely based on a common language might not adequately represent these unique contexts.

Potential for Conflict: Making a single language the basis for state formation could potentially lead to conflicts and tensions among different linguistic communities. It could also marginalize those who do not speak the dominant language.

Administrative and Economic Factors: The formation of a state should also consider administrative convenience and economic viability. These factors are crucial for the effective functioning of a state and the well-being of its residents.

D. Multiple Choice Questions: Tick (✔) the correct answer.

12. Which of the following is not a Federation?

Answer: (c) France

13. Which of the following factors should be taken into account as regards the formation of a new State under the Indian Union?

Answer: (a) A common language of that region

14. Which among the following is the only State in the country having a Constitution of its own and a separate Flag?

Answer: (b) The Jammu and Kashmir State

15. Which Article of the Constitution makes special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland?

Answer: (c) Article 371-A

Additional/extra questions and answers

1. What is the principal characteristic of a Unitary Government? 

Answer: The principal characteristic of a unitary government is concentration of powers in the national government. 

2. How can a Federal government be defined according to Carl J. Friedrich? 

Answer: According to Carl J. Friedrich, a Federation can be defined “as a political organisation in which the activities of government are divided between regional governments and a central government in such a way that each kind of government has some activities on which it makes final decision.” 

3. List the key features of a Federal Government. 

Answer: 

• Division of Powers, i.e. Two Sets of Polities 
• Two Sets of Identities 
• A Written and a Rigid Constitution 
• An Independent Judiciary 

4. What is the significance of a ‘written and rigid’ Constitution in a Federal Government? 

Answer: A written and rigid Constitution in a federal government is significant as it serves as an agreement that enacts the distribution of powers and also lays down the conditions and processes through which these powers have to be exercised. It is rigid because no amendment can be affected unless both the National and State governments consent to the change through a well-defined procedure. It underscores the supremacy of the Constitution, within whose limits the central and state legislatures exercise their powers. 

5. What does the division of powers mean in a federal government? 

Answer: In a federal government, division of powers means that the state powers are divided between a national (or federal) government and the governments of federating units. Subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, currency and coinage, are controlled by the national government, whereas subjects of local or regional importance such as police, land, or public order, are controlled by the governments of federating units. 

Q. Can you elaborate on the concept of ‘Two Sets of Identities’ as a feature of a Federal Government? 

Answer: The ‘Two Sets of Identities’ in a Federation refers to the combination of ‘national unity’ and ‘local identity’. In a Federation, sovereignty is located neither in the Central government nor in the governments of constituent States. These entities have limited powers. The division of powers in a federation is the division of governmental authority, not of sovereignty. In fact, sovereignty resides in the Federation or the Union itself. This feature highlights the right of self-government while maintaining the unity of the nation. 

Q. Describe the role of an independent Judiciary in a Federal Government. 

Answer: An Independent Judiciary is a key feature of a Federal Government due to the principle of division of powers. Since powers are divided between the National government and State governments, conflicts of jurisdiction may arise. In such cases, there needs to be an institution that has the power to decide disputes between the Central Government and any State or between two States. In most federations, such powers are vested in an independent Supreme Court, which acts as the Guardian of the Constitution. The Judiciary’s independence ensures that it can objectively arbitrate disputes, uphold the Constitution, and maintain the balance of power. 

Q. What is the implication of the term ‘Union’ as stated in Article 1 of the Constitution of India? 

Answer: The term ‘Union’ in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution implies that the component units, that is, the states, have no right to secede from the Indian Union. 

Q. Can you elaborate on the division of powers in the Indian Federal Constitution? 

Answer: In the Federal Constitution of India, all subjects of legislation and administration are classified into three lists: the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List. Subjects of national importance, such as defence, atomic energy, railways, and currency, are placed under the Union List. On the other hand, subjects of local importance like police, agriculture, and local government form a part of the State List. The Concurrent List contains matters such as marriage and education on which both the Parliament and the State Legislature have power to make laws. In the event of a dispute between the Union and the States or between the States themselves, it is resolved by the Supreme Court. 

Q. What are the key features of the Indian Constitution as a federal document? 

Answer: The Indian Constitution, as a federal document, exhibits several key features. Firstly, it establishes two sets of governments, the Union and the States, that coexist with limited and coordinated authority. Secondly, it outlines a clear division of powers between these entities via the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. Thirdly, the Constitution is written and rigid, with provisions for amendment by simple majority, two-thirds majority, or approval by at least half of the states, depending on the parts of the Constitution to be amended. Finally, the Supreme Court and High Courts are endowed with the power to interpret the Constitution, acting as final arbiters in cases of jurisdictional disputes or constitutional violations by the Union or State governments. 

Q. How does the Indian Constitution ensure the division of legislative and administrative subjects between the Union and the States, and what role does the Supreme Court play in this setup? 

Answer: The Indian Constitution ensures the division of legislative and administrative subjects between the Union and the States through the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects of national importance, such as defence and atomic energy. The State List includes subjects of local importance, like agriculture and local government. The Concurrent List houses matters on which both Parliament and the State Legislature can make laws, such as marriage and education. In case of any disputes arising between the Union and the States or among the States themselves regarding these subjects, the Supreme Court serves as the final arbiter, settling these disputes in accordance with the Constitution. 

Q. How does the Indian Constitution facilitate changes to its provisions, and what is the role of the Parliament and the States in this process? 

Answer: The Indian Constitution provides a mechanism for its amendment that is neither too flexible nor too rigid. Certain parts of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority in the Parliament, while others require a two-thirds majority. There is also a third category of provisions that, in addition to being passed by the Parliament, need approval from at least one-half of the States in India. This arrangement ensures a balanced approach to constitutional amendment, allowing necessary changes while also maintaining stability and continuity in the Constitution. 

Q. What is the role of the Supreme Court and High Courts in the context of the Indian Federal Constitution, and how do they ensure adherence to the Constitution’s provisions by the Union and State governments? 

Answer: The Supreme Court and High Courts in India act as the final interpreters of the Constitution within the framework of the Indian Federal Constitution. They possess the power to adjudicate disputes arising out of conflicts of jurisdiction between the Union and the States or between the States themselves. These judicial bodies also have the authority to nullify any action taken by the Union or State governments that is found to be in violation of the provisions of the Constitution. This authority ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and reinforces its role as the fundamental law of the land. 

Q. What are some peculiar features of the Indian federation resulting from special political conditions of India? 

Answer: The Indian federation has several peculiar features due to the special political conditions of the country. These are: 

• Parliament has a very wide scope of legislation, with power over state subjects as well, which can be declared by a resolution supported by two-thirds of the Members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha. 
• Parliament can alter the boundaries of states to form a new state, as it did when the Lok Sabha approved the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill, which split Andhra Pradesh into two separate states. 
• The Union Government has overwhelming financial powers, and has the freedom and authority to decide how much grant or loan has to be given to a state in a particular situation. 
• The executive head of the state is the Governor, appointed by the President and holding office during the pleasure of the President, who is required to reserve certain specified bills for the assent of the President. 
• In an emergency, the federal structure can be converted into a unitary one, allowing the Union Parliament to legislate on any subject in the State List. 
• If there is a breakdown of the Constitutional machinery of a state, the President may assume all or any of the functions of the Government of the State. 
• During normal circumstances, the Union Government can exert control over State Administration via All-India Services like IAS and IPS officers. 

Q. What happened on the 2nd of June, 2014, in the context of State formation in India? 

Answer: On 2nd June 2014, India got its 29th State, Telangana, when Shri K. Chandrasekhar Rao was sworn in as the First Chief Minister of the newly constituted state. 

Q. What is the role of the Governor in the Indian federation? 

Answer: The Governor is the executive head of the State in the Indian federation. They are appointed by the President and hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Governor is required to reserve certain specified bills for the Assent of the President. 

Q. What happens in an Emergency as per the Indian federation? 

Answer: In an emergency, as per the Indian federation, once the President issues a Proclamation of Emergency, the Union Parliament can legislate on any subject enumerated in the State List. This essentially means that the federal structure may be converted into a unitary one. 

Q. What does the imposition of the President’s Rule imply according to the Indian constitution? 

Answer: The imposition of the President’s Rule according to the Indian constitution implies that in case of a break-down of the Constitutional machinery of a State, the President may assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State. 

Q. What control does the Union Government have over State Administration during normal circumstances? 

Answer: During normal circumstances, the Union Government can assert much control over State Administration by means of All-India Services, such as IAS and IPS officers. 

Q. What are the major points of conflict and controversy in Centre-State relations? 

Answer: The major points of conflict and controversy in Centre-State relations include: 

• Demands for Autonomy, which means that the States should be free to make their own decisions rather than being politically and financially controlled by the Union Government. 
• Issues around Article 356, which provides for President’s Rule in States. 
• Disagreements over alterations in boundaries of existing States for the formation of new States. 
• Conflicts over the share in Central taxes. 
• Debates around the Anandpur Sahib Resolution, which states that “the Centre’s authority should be confined only to these matters – defence, foreign affairs, communications, railways and currency” and all other powers should be vested in States. 

Q. What was the Anandpur Sahib Resolution and what did it propose? 

Answer: The Anandpur Sahib Resolution was originally adopted in 1973 by the Akali Dal in Punjab. It proposed that “the Centre’s authority should be confined only to these matters – defence, foreign affairs, communications, railways and currency” and all other powers should be vested in the States. This reflects a strong demand for State autonomy and reduction of Central powers. 

Q. What is the stance of the DMK and AIADMK in Tamil Nadu regarding state autonomy and language? 

Answer: The DMK and AIADMK in Tamil Nadu have pleaded for greater autonomy for states. They are opposed to the imposition of Hindi and favour the retention of English as a link language between various states. 

Q. Can you explain the financial relations between the Union Government and the State governments? 

Answer: The Union Government is financially stabler and stronger than the State governments. While the responsibilities of the States have been increasing, their resources have remained stagnant. Therefore, states argue that they are not receiving their due share of the ‘fiscal cake’, creating tensions in Centre-State relations. The States are required to follow the policies laid down by the Planning Commission, and more recently, by the Niti Ayog. However, to follow these policies, States need to obtain sufficient funds from the Union. 

Q. Discuss the role of the Governor in India’s constitutional setup and its evolution over time. 

Answer: The Constitution-makers of India envisioned the role of the Governor as a coordinating factor between the States and the Centre. Over time, however, clashes between the Chief Minister and the Governor have become common, often leading to political instability. This can be seen in the cases of the dismissal of the Kalyan Singh Government by the Governor of Uttar Pradesh on the eve of the Lok Sabha elections in 1998, and the dismissal of the BJP government by the Goa Governor in 2005. There has been criticism over the partisan behaviour of Governors, which has led to calls for Governors to be eminent personalities who are not connected with the local politics of the state. 

Q. Explain the incident involving the Goa Governor and the Congress legislative party leader C. Kavlekar. 

Answer: In March 2017, the Congress legislative party leader, C. Kavlekar, approached the Supreme Court. He challenged the Goa Governor’s decision to invite the BJP to form the government despite the Congress winning a larger number of seats. The Governor, Mridula Sinha, had appointed the Chief Minister, asserting that Manohar Parrikar could manage the support of 22 MLAs in the 40-member State Assembly. This incident added to the ongoing debate on the role and powers of the Governor. However, the Supreme Court dismissed Kavlekar’s petition. 

Q. How have the conflicts between the Chief Minister and the Governor evolved over the years? Give examples. 

Answer: Over the years, conflicts between the Chief Minister and the Governor have become increasingly common. For instance, on February 21, 1998, the Governor of Uttar Pradesh dismissed the Kalyan Singh Government on the eve of the Lok Sabha elections, a decision which was later nullified by the Allahabad High Court. Similarly, in 2005, the Goa Governor dismissed the BJP government, despite a Confidence Vote in the Chief Minister’s favour. In 2017, the Congress legislative party leader C. Kavlekar challenged the Goa Governor’s decision to invite the BJP to form the government when it was the Congress that had won the larger number of seats. This decision by the Governor was upheld by the Supreme Court. Such incidents highlight the tension between the state and the Centre, represented by the Governor, and underline the need for impartiality in the Governor’s office. 

Q. What is the demand of the Akali Dal regarding the Punjabi-speaking areas of Haryana and Rajasthan? 

Answer: The Akali Dal has demanded that the Punjabi-speaking areas of Haryana and Rajasthan should be merged with Punjab. This reflects the cultural and linguistic issues that often cause conflicts between different regions of a country. 

Q. What are the views of the Chief Ministers regarding the financial relationship with the Union Government? 

Answer: The Chief Ministers hold the view that while the responsibilities of the States have been increasing, their resources have remained stagnant. They argue that the States do not receive their due share of the ‘fiscal cake’, leading to tensions in Centre-State relations. They point out that the States have to follow the policies laid down by the Planning Commission and nowadays by the Niti Ayog, but to adhere to these policies, they require sufficient funds from the Union. This is seen as a major hurdle in the financial relations between the States and the Union Government. 

Q. What is the significance of Article 356 in the Indian Constitution? 

Answer: Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Centre to dismiss a State government, a provision which has been used about 100 times since its inception. The Founding Fathers of the Constitution had hoped that this article would only remain a “dead letter”, meaning it would not be used frequently. However, on 7 October 2005, the Supreme Court declared the Presidential Proclamation dissolving the Bihar State Assembly as “unconstitutional”. As a result, it was clarified that Article 356 is “conditional and not absolute”, and it is open for the Supreme Court or the High Courts to verify the facts on which a Presidential Proclamation is based. 

Q. How have demands for new states in India influenced Centre-State relations? 

Answer: The demand for new states has been a significant cause of tension between the Centre and the States in India. For instance, following the First General Election in 1952, the Andhra Pradesh Congress Committee passed a resolution asking for a separate state for the Telugu speaking people of Madras (Tamil Nadu). After Sriramulu’s death during his fast for this cause, the State of Andhra Pradesh was created on 1 October 1953. This event triggered similar demands from other regions leading to the creation of several new states such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Chattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, and Telangana. There are ongoing demands for the creation of more new states such as Bodoland and Gorkhaland. 

Q. What are some of the key recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission for improving the relations between the Centre and States in India? 

Answer: The Sarkaria Commission made several valuable suggestions to improve Centre-State relations. These include: 

• The Governor should be an eminent person and not be too intimately connected with local politics. 
• The Chief Minister should be consulted before appointing a particular person as Governor of that State. 
• The power to impose President’s rule in a State should be used very sparingly. 
• The Chief Minister should be consulted before deploying paramilitary forces into disturbed regions in a State. 
• According to Article 258, the President should generously give States more powers and responsibilities. 
• The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act needs amendment for creating an independent Tribunal to resolve water sharing problems within a year of receiving a complaint. 
• State Bills reserved for the President’s assent should be disposed of within four months. 
• If the President withholds his assent to State Bills, the reasons should be communicated to State Governments. 
• There should be fairer sharing of taxes between the Centre and States. 
• The Inter-State Council should work more effectively, with an independent permanent Secretariat to prepare papers for discussion based on impartial and objective study. 

Q. Who was Sriramulu and what role did he play in the creation of the State of Andhra Pradesh? 

Answer: Sriramulu was a significant figure who played a crucial role in the creation of the State of Andhra Pradesh. He was deeply committed to the cause of creating a separate state for the Telugu speaking people of Madras (Tamil Nadu). To achieve this objective, he went on a fast. His death during this fast had a profound impact and led to the Indian Union Government conceding the demand for a separate State of Andhra Pradesh, which came into existence on 1 October 1953. 

Q. What was the Supreme Court’s stance on the dissolution of the Bihar State Assembly in 2005? 

Answer: The Supreme Court held a stance on the dissolution of the Bihar State Assembly in 2005 which marked a significant moment in Indian constitutional law. The court declared the May 23 Presidential Proclamation dissolving the Bihar State Assembly as “unconstitutional”. This verdict affirmed that Article 356, which empowers the Centre to dismiss a State government, is “conditional and not absolute”. This means the Courts have the power to scrutinize the facts on the basis of which a Presidential Proclamation under Article 356 is based. 

Q. Explain the role and potential improvement of the Inter-State Council according to the Sarkaria Commission? 

Answer: The Sarkaria Commission recommended the Inter-State Council to be made more effective for the betterment of Centre-State relations. The Council is a constitutional body for cooperation between the Centre and the States. However, according to the Sarkaria Commission, its working needs to be improved. The Commission suggested that the Inter-State Council should have an independent permanent Secretariat so that papers for discussion could be prepared well in advance on the basis of impartial and objective study. This would allow for better organization, planning, and execution of the Council’s duties and responsibilities, thereby enhancing Centre-State cooperation and coordination. 

Q. Discuss the creation of new States in India post-independence and the reasons behind these demands. 

Answer: Since India’s independence, there have been several demands for the creation of new states, leading to changes in India’s political map. The first such demand came from the Telugu speaking people of Madras (Tamil Nadu), which resulted in the creation of the State of Andhra Pradesh on 1 October 1953, especially following the death of Sriramulu who had gone on a fast for this cause. This led to similar demands from other quarters. In 1960, the State of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat. Nagaland formally became a State of the Indian Union in 1963, and in 1972, several states such as Manipur and Meghalaya were carved out of Assam. In November 2000, the States of Chattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand came into being, followed by the creation of Telangana, India’s 29th State, on 2 June 2014. The reasons behind these demands often revolve around linguistic, cultural, economic, or administrative considerations, with proponents arguing that smaller states allow for more targeted and efficient governance and development. 

Q. What were the special provisions in the Constitution of India with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir as per Article 370? 

Answer: 

• Jammu and Kashmir was the only State in the country having a Constitution of its own and a separate Flag. 
• When the President of India proclaimed an Emergency under Article 352 due to external aggression or armed rebellion, it did not automatically become applicable to Jammu and Kashmir. It could only be applied with the concurrence of the State. 
• The President could not proclaim a Financial Emergency in the State of Jammu and Kashmir. 
• The power of Parliament to make laws for Jammu and Kashmir was limited to those matters specified in the Instrument of Accession. Parliament could make laws on other matters as well, but only with the concurrence of the State government. 
• The Union Parliament could not repeal Article 370 without the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly. 

Q. What are the historical events leading up to the accession of Jammu and Kashmir to the Indian Union? 

Answer: On August 15,1947, the State of Jammu and Kashmir was under the full control of Maharaja Hari Singh. However, post partition, fighting, plundering, and arson erupted in the Kashmir Valley. Since Kashmir had not acceded to Indian Union, the Government of India couldn’t send its forces to defend the State. In the face of this external aggression, on October 26, 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession, making Jammu and Kashmir a formal part of the Indian Union. 

Q. What is the Bodoland Territorial Council and how was it established? 

Answer: The Bodos in Assam had been agitating for the establishment of a separate Bodo State. Both the Union Government and the Assam Government rejected this demand. On February 10, 2003, a Memorandum of Settlement was signed by the Union Government, the Assam Government, and the Bodo Liberation Tigers. They reached a decision on the creation of the Bodoland Territorial Council, aiming to fulfill economic, educational, and linguistic aspirations of the Bodos. In the same year, the Bodo language was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. 

Q. What are the District Councils for Dimasas and Karbis, and why were they formed? 

Answer: The District Councils for Dimasas and Karbis were formed in response to the autonomy demands of these communities in the North East. These Councils were formed with the primary purpose of looking after the social and economic well-being of the Dimasas and Karbis. 

Q. Can you discuss the history and developments related to the demand for a separate state of Gorkhaland? 

Answer: The demand for Gorkhaland started with the Gorkha National Liberation Front (GNLF) launching a fierce agitation under Subhas Ghising’s leadership. The aim was to establish a separate State out of the Darjeeling and neighboring regions of West Bengal. In 1988, the GNLF accepted the government’s proposal to form a Hill Development Council, with the condition that the proposed Council should include the word ‘Gorkha’ in its name. The demand for Gorkhaland as a separate State resurfaced in 2007, led by the Gorkha Janmukti Morcha (GJM). In 2011, the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council was replaced by the Gorkhaland Territorial Administration (GTA), which was granted significant powers for developing the Hill areas. In June 2017, protests against the State government’s announcement of compulsory Bengali language teaching in all schools of the State rekindled the demand for Gorkhaland. The protest turned into a renewal of the demand for the state of Gorkhaland, and by the end of July 2017, government property worth several crore had been destroyed in the agitation. 

Q. What provisions does Article 371-A of the Indian Constitution provide for the state of Nagaland? 

Answer: Article 371-A provides special provisions for the state of Nagaland. Section (a) stipulates that no Act of Parliament pertaining to (i) religious or social practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and (iv) ownership and transfer of land and its resources, shall apply to the state of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland so decides. Section (b) outlines the Governor’s special responsibility with respect to law and order, particularly during periods of internal disturbances. Furthermore, a ‘Regional Council’ was to be established for the Tuensang District for ten years from the formation of the state. 

Q. What special responsibility does the Governor have under Article 371-A, and is it still relevant? 

Answer: Under Article 371-A, the Governor has special responsibility with respect to law and order, especially during periods of internal disturbances in the Naga Hills Tuensang Area. The Governor must consult with the Council of Ministers and exercise individual judgement regarding the action to be taken. However, as internal disturbances have ceased to exist in the area, this provision of the Constitution may be deemed redundant or unnecessary. 

Q. Describe the concept and purpose of the ‘Regional Council’ as mentioned in Article 371-A? 

Answer: Part (2) of Article 371-A mandated the establishment of a ‘Regional Council’ for the Tuensang District. The Council was to be established for a period of ten years from the formation of the State of Nagaland. The Regional Council, besides being an administrative authority, was tasked with nominating Tribal representatives to be members of the Nagaland Legislative Assembly. However, at the end of the ten year period in 1973, the Regional Council was abolished, and people of the Tuensang District began participating in elections to the Nagaland Legislative Assembly along with the rest of the State. 

44. Discuss the issues and challenges related to the special provisions for the State of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370. 

Answer: Article 370, providing special provisions to the state of Jammu and Kashmir, has been subject to severe criticism. It has been seen as creating an impression of Jammu and Kashmir being separate from the rest of India. Presently, there’s a significant disorder in the state, with many leaders advocating for autonomy or even complete independence (‘Azadi’) for the state. External influences, such as the Pakistani military’s alleged support for terrorists in the valley and recent interests shown by groups like the Islamic State and al-Qaeda, have further complicated the issue. Despite these challenges, the Union Government has shown its capacity for taking bold initiatives in recent months. The need of the hour is for peace-loving individuals to resist the manipulative tactics of those exploiting mass sentiments around autonomy, and for the state’s leaders to prioritize peace and order.

Additional/extra MCQs

1. What type of government vests all governmental powers in the national government? 

A. Federal Government B. Unitary Government C. Confederation D. Parliamentary Democracy 

Answer: B. Unitary Government 

2. Which country is known for its tradition of unitary rule? 

A. India B. Switzerland C. USA D. France 

Answer: D. France 

3. What is a Federation according to Carl J. Friedrich? 

A. A political organization with concentrated powers B. A political organization with a single identity C. A political organization dividing government activities D. A political organization with flexible constitution 

Answer: C. A political organization dividing government activities 

4. Which country is not an example of a federal government as of now? 

A. Switzerland B. USA C. India D. United Kingdom 

Answer: D. United Kingdom 

5. What is the first key feature of a Federal Government? 

A. Two sets of identities B. An independent judiciary C. A written and a rigid constitution D. Division of powers 

Answer: D. Division of powers 

Q. In a Federation, where is sovereignty located? 

A. Central government B. Constituent States C. Union D. Judiciary 

Answer: C. Union 

Q. Who controls subjects of local importance in a federal government? 

A. Federal government B. Governments of federating units C. Judiciary D. Independent agencies 

Answer: B. Governments of federating units 

Q. What type of Constitution does a Federation have? 

A. Flexible B. Unwritten C. Written and rigid D. Amendable 

Answer: C. Written and rigid 

Q. Who acts as the Guardian of the Constitution in a Federation? 

A. Central Government B. State Government C. Supreme Court D. President 

Answer: C. Supreme Court 

Q. Who can amend the Constitution in a Federation? 

A. National government alone B. State governments alone C. Both National and State governments D. Judiciary 

Answer: C. Both National and State governments 

Q. According to the Constitution of India, which article declares that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States?” 

A. Article 2 B. Article 1 C. Article 5 D. Article 10 

Answer: B. Article 1 

Q. In the Constitution of India, which list contains subjects of national importance such as defence and atomic energy? 

A. State List B. Union List C. Concurrent List D. Residuary List 

Answer: B. Union List 

Q. Which list in the Constitution of India contains subjects of local importance like police, agriculture, and local government? 

A. Union List B. State List C. Concurrent List D. Residuary List 

Answer: B. State List 

Q. In the Indian Constitution, on which list do both the Parliament and the State Legislature have the power to make laws? 

A. Union List B. State List C. Concurrent List D. Residuary List 

Answer: C. Concurrent List 

Q. How many Schedules were originally there in the Indian Constitution? 

A. Eight B. Ten C. Twelve D. Fourteen 

Answer: A. Eight 

Q. Which institution in India acts as the final interpreter of the Constitution? 

A. The President B. The Parliament C. The Supreme Court D. The Prime Minister 

Answer: C. The Supreme Court 

Q. According to the Constitution of India, where are the residuary powers vested? 

A. State Government B. Local Government C. Union Parliament D. Judiciary 

Answer: C. Union Parliament 

Q. In the event of a conflict between a Union law and a State law in matters under the Concurrent List, whose law prevails according to the Indian Constitution? 

A. State law B. Union law C. Both D. None 

Answer: B. Union law 

Q. How many States does India consist of according to the Constitution? 

A. 29 B. 28 C. 30 D. 31 

Answer: A. 29 

Q. How many Union Territories does India have as per the Constitution? 

A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 

Answer: B. 7 

Q. Who has the power to alter the boundaries of States in the Indian federation? 

A. Rajya Sabha B. Lok Sabha C. Parliament D. Supreme Court 

Answer: C. Parliament 

Q. Who was sworn in as the First Chief Minister of Telangana? 

A. N. Chandrababu Naidu B. Jagan Mohan Reddy C. K. Chandrasekhar Rao D. M. K. Stalin 

Answer: C. K. Chandrasekhar Rao 

Q. Who appoints the executive head of the State in the Indian federation? 

A. Prime Minister B. Chief Minister C. President D. Governor 

Answer: C. President 

Q. Under what circumstance can the Union Parliament legislate on any subject enumerated in the State List? 

A. During normal circumstances B. When there is a constitutional crisis C. In an Emergency D. During the imposition of President’s Rule 

Answer: C. In an Emergency 

Q. Which article provides for President’s Rule in States? 

A. Article 370 B. Article 356 C. Article 377 D. Article 360 

Answer: B. Article 356 

Q. What type of services allows the Union Government to control State Administration during normal circumstances? 

A. State Services B. All-India Services C. Civil Services D. Central Services 

Answer: B. All-India Services 

Q. The resolution, that proposed “the Centre’s authority should be confined only to defence, foreign affairs, communications, railways and currency,” was adopted by which party? 

A. Congress B. BJP C. Left Front D. Akali Dal 

Answer: D. Akali Dal 

Q. Which committee was appointed by the Tamil Nadu Government to look into the question of Centre-State relations? 

A. Lokur Committee B. Khosla Committee C. Venkatachaliah Commission D. Rajamannar Committee 

Answer: D. Rajamannar Committee 

Q. Who has the authority to decide how much Grant or Loan has to be given to a State in a particular situation in the Indian federation?  

A. State Government B. RBI C. Union Government D. Finance Commission 

Answer: C. Union Government 

Q. Which state was reconstituted into two separate states by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill? 

A. Karnataka B. Madhya Pradesh C. Bihar D. Andhra Pradesh 

Answer: D. Andhra Pradesh 

Q. What parties in Tamil Nadu are advocating for greater state autonomy? 

A. AIADMK and BJP B. DMK and AIADMK C. DMK and BJP D. AIADMK and Congress 

Answer: B. DMK and AIADMK 

Q. What language do the DMK and AIADMK favor as a link language between states? 

A. Hindi B. English C. Tamil D. Telugu 

Answer: B. English 

Q. Which party demanded the merger of Punjabi-speaking areas of Haryana and Rajasthan with Punjab? 

A. AIADMK B. DMK C. Akali Dal D. Congress 

Answer: C. Akali Dal 

Q. Who dismissed the Kalyan Singh Government on the eve of the Lok Sabha elections in 1998? 

A. Prime Minister B. Chief Minister C. President D. Governor of Uttar Pradesh 

Answer: D. Governor of Uttar Pradesh 

Q. Which High Court nullified the Governor’s decision to dismiss the Kalyan Singh Government? 

A. Delhi High Court B. Allahabad High Court C. Kolkata High Court D. Chennai High Court 

Answer: B. Allahabad High Court 

Q. In 2005, which state’s Governor dismissed the BJP government despite a Confidence Vote in the Chief Minister’s favour? 

A. Uttar Pradesh B. Tamil Nadu C. Goa D. Rajasthan 

Answer: C. Goa 

Q. Who approached the Supreme Court in 2017 to challenge the Governor’s decision to invite the BJP to form the government in Goa? 

A. Manohar Parrikar B. Mridula Sinha C. C. Kavlekar D. Kalyan Singh 

Answer: C. C. Kavlekar 

Q. Who was appointed as the Chief Minister by Governor Mridula Sinha after the Goa election in 2017? 

A. C. Kavlekar B. Mridula Sinha C. Manohar Parrikar D. Kalyan Singh 

Answer: C. Manohar Parrikar 

Q. What did the Supreme Court decide in response to C. Kavlekar’s petition? 

A. Upheld the petition B. Dismissed the petition C. Delayed the decision D. Requested a re-election 

Answer: B. Dismissed the petition 

Q. What is viewed as a contributing factor to the tension between the Centre and State in India? 

A. Equal distribution of ‘fiscal cake’ B. Unequal share of ‘fiscal cake’ C. Balanced responsibilities and resources D. Equal responsibilities and resources 

Answer: B. Unequal share of ‘fiscal cake’ 

Q. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Centre to dismiss a State government? 

A. Article 342 B. Article 356 C. Article 360 D. Article 370 

Answer: B. Article 356 

Q. When was the State of Andhra Pradesh established? 

A. 1 October 1950 B. 1 October 1952 C. 1 October 1953 D. 1 October 1955 

Answer: C. 1 October 1953 

Q. Which state was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960? 

A. Madras B. Bihar C. Bombay D. Hyderabad 

Answer: C. Bombay 

Q. When did Nagaland formally become a State of the Indian Union? 

A. 1960 B. 1961 C. 1962 D. 1963 

Answer: D. 1963 

Q. In November 2000, which states came into being in India? 

A. Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland B. Chattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand C. Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh D. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa 

Answer: B. Chattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand 

Q. Which was the 29th State to be formed in India? 

A. Telangana B. Andhra Pradesh C. Manipur D. Meghalaya 

Answer: A. Telangana 

Q. According to the Sarkaria Commission, who should be consulted before appointing a particular person as Governor of a State? 

A. President B. Prime Minister C. Chief Minister D. Home Minister 

Answer: C. Chief Minister 

Q. Which Article, according to the Sarkaria Commission’s recommendations, should be used by the President to give more powers and responsibilities to States? 

A. Article 252 B. Article 254 C. Article 258 D. Article 262 

Answer: C. Article 258 

Q. As per the Sarkaria Commission, within how many months should State Bills reserved for the President’s assent be disposed of? 

A. Two months B. Three months C. Four months D. Five months 

Answer: C. Four months 

Q. Who was Sriramulu in the context of the formation of Andhra Pradesh? 

A. A political leader B. A fast unto death activist C. A governor D. A chief minister 

Answer: B. A fast unto death activist 

Q. On what date did Maharaja Hari Singh sign the Instrument of Accession, making Jammu and Kashmir a formal part of the Indian Union? 

A. August 15, 1947 B. October 26, 1947 C. December 12, 1947 D. January 1, 1948 

Answer: B. October 26, 1947 

Q. Which state in India had its own constitution and a separate flag according to Article 370? 

A. Punjab B. Maharashtra C. Jammu and Kashmir D. Uttar Pradesh 

Answer: C. Jammu and Kashmir 

Q. Who could not proclaim a Financial Emergency in the State of Jammu and Kashmir? 

A. Prime Minister B. President C. Governor D. Chief Minister 

Answer: B. President 

Q. To which schedule of the Constitution was the Bodo language added in 2003? 

A. Sixth Schedule B. Eighth Schedule C. Tenth Schedule D. Twelfth Schedule 

Answer: B. Eighth Schedule 

Q. The Instrument of Accession limited the power of Parliament to make laws for Jammu and Kashmir. This limitation extended to matters specified in what document? 

A. Constitution of India B. Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir C. Instrument of Accession D. Treaty of Versailles 

Answer: C. Instrument of Accession 

Q. The Autonomous District Councils created under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution are intended for the protection of cultural identity and economic interests of which part of India? 

A. South India B. North India C. North East D. West India 

Answer: C. North East 

Q. Which community’s autonomy demands were satisfied by the formation of the District Councils? 

A. Gorkhas B. Dimasas and Karbis C. Bodos D. All of the above 

Answer: B. Dimasas and Karbis 

Q. What was the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council replaced by in 2011? 

A. Bodoland Territorial Council B. Gorkhaland Territorial Administration C. Gorkha National Liberation Front D. Gorkha Janmukti Morcha 

Answer: B. Gorkhaland Territorial Administration 

Q. When was the Bodoland Territorial Council created? 

A. February 10, 2001 B. February 10, 2002 C. February 10, 2003 D. February 10, 2004 

Answer: C. February 10, 2003 

Q. In the context of Jammu and Kashmir, which Article in the Constitution of India cannot be repealed without the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly? 

A. Article 350 B. Article 360 C. Article 370 D. Article 380 

Answer: C. Article 370 

Q. When was the State of Nagaland established? 

A. 1 December 1960 B. 1 December 1962 C. 1 December 1963 D. 1 December 1964 

Answer: C. 1 December 1963 

Q. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for the State of Nagaland? 

A. Article 370 B. Article 371 C. Article 371-A D. Article 372 

Answer: C. Article 371-A 

Q. Who has the special responsibility with respect to law and order in the State of Nagaland as per the Constitution? 

A. Prime Minister B. Chief Minister C. Governor D. President 

Answer: C. Governor 

Q. Which district had a ‘Regional Council’ established for a period of ten years from the formation of the State of Nagaland? 

A. Kohima District B. Dimapur District C. Tuensang District D. Mokokchung District 

Answer: C. Tuensang District 

Q. When was the ‘Regional Council’ for the Tuensang District abolished? 

A. 1971 B. 1972 C. 1973 D. 1974 

Answer: C. 1973 

Q. Which Article of the Indian Constitution has been subject to severe criticism due to its special provisions for Jammu and Kashmir? 

A. Article 368 B. Article 369 C. Article 370 D. Article 371 

Answer: C. Article 370 

Q. What term is used to refer to the complete independence that some leaders of Jammu and Kashmir are advocating for? 

A. Swaraj B. Azadi C. Mukti D. Swatantrata 

Answer: B. Azadi 

Q. Which external entity is alleged to be supporting terrorists in Jammu and Kashmir? 

A. Taliban B. Al-Qaeda C. Pakistani military D. Islamic State 

Answer: C. Pakistani military 

Q. Which two extremist organizations are reported to have shown interest in Jammu and Kashmir? 

A. Hezbollah and Taliban B. Al-Qaeda and Islamic State C. Boko Haram and Al-Shabaab D. Hamas and Muslim Brotherhood 

Answer: B. Al-Qaeda and Islamic State 

70. Which body of the State of Nagaland can decide if an Act of Parliament should apply to the State? 

A. The High Court of Nagaland B. The Naga Hoho C. The Legislative Assembly of Nagaland D. The Governor of Nagaland 

Answer: C. The Legislative Assembly of Nagaland